ATCT I Operations Block III Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Which phrase is used to achieve spacing between departing and arriving aircraft?
• What is the outer marker name for the ILS R28R approach?
• When should use of another controller's airspace be coordinated for an aircraft under your control?
• Aircraft assigned EDC times should depart no earlier than how many minutes before and no later than how many minutes after the EDC time?
• When an arriving aircraft is inside the ILS Outer Marker (OM) or the fix used in lieu of the OM, ground vehicles are not authorized to operate in the ILS critical area unless the reported ceiling and visibility meet which thresholds?
• Ground Control must obtain approval from which position before authorizing an aircraft or vehicle to cross or use any portion of an active runway?
• What should be reflected in each clearance to reflect runway status and alignment?
• In the event of a communications failure, clearance broadcasts should be sent through any available means including the voice feature of which system?
• When the FDIO is out of service, what action must be taken by the FD position?
• Which configuration indicates ILS critical area markings?
• Which scenario best describes when an intersection departure might be used rather than a full-length runway departure?
• Local controllers must visually scan runways to what extent?
• If coordination with another sector is required before entering their airspace, when should the coordination occur?
• What action should you take when a significant change in weather is displayed on the weather display?
• Processing and forwarding flight plan information is a duty of which position?
• The phraseology to direct an inbound aircraft to a right base is
• During periods of high workload, what is the recommended approach to safety and sequencing?
• Which call sign and runway identification is used for Baron in the example?
• What is the role of weather alerts or advisories in ATCT operations?
• Local Control must verbally specify a runway to be crossed preceded by which word?
• What information should be included when issuing a runway closure advisory?
• Which statement best describes the taxi clearance that authorizes crossing all taxiways and runways along the route?
• What does the term "intersection departure" refer to?
• Academy Class D airspace base is at the surface.
• When is it appropriate to assign equal priority to two arriving aircraft that request priority clearance?
• At Academy Tower, Ground Control coordinates with which unit before taxiing an IFR aircraft to Runway 16?
• Which action best describes the purpose of helicopter hover-taxiing?
• Gate hold procedures require using which phraseology to indicate the time a pilot can start engines?
• From the responses below, which are NAVAIDs that are within Academy airspace?
• Which NAVAID is located within Academy airspace along with Tulsa VORTAC?
• What is the primary difference between movement area and non-movement area in ATCT operations?
• When a taxi clearance to a runway is issued, what must be confirmed to ensure the correct runway assignment?
• What is the function of a NOTAM in airport operations?
• Distance to the runway end should be issued to pilots rounded down to the nearest ________ feet.
• What is the purpose of holding position markings?
• What phraseology is used to authorize an aircraft to line up on the runway and wait for takeoff clearance?
• How should ATCT sequence arriving aircraft on final approach when multiple are present?
• LAHSO: What is the exact instruction given to a landing aircraft to hold short of an intersecting runway that is being used by a departing aircraft?
• Do not use the word "________" in conjunction with authorization for aircraft to taxi
• Which part of the LAHSO example identifies the departing aircraft?
• Before using a runway not previously designated as the active runway, with whom shall the local controller coordinate?
• What is the phraseology to clear N34DB (a C-172) to land on Runway 28 Left?
• Which statement best describes the controller's approach to clearing multiple aircraft at a busy airport?
• Do not issue which type of instructions dependent upon the movement of arrival aircraft on the runway?
• Issue both midpoint and rollout RVR when the value of either is less than ________ feet and the value of the touchdown RVR is greater than the midpoint or rollout.
• When informed that an aircraft is responding to a TCAS Resolution Advisory (RA), do NOT__________.
• In the LAHSO example, which runway is the departing aircraft using?
• When issuing a taxi instruction, what essential elements must you include if the route is not obvious to the pilot?
• Which SID is used for Academy's standard departure?
• Select the visual reference point used at Academy airport.
• What information should you monitor on the control tower's weather display?
• If a runway is closed, which details should the controller provide to pilots?
• During MARSA, which aircraft require separation from participating military aircraft?
• Which document governs the terms under which preventive airport traffic control service is provided?
• When transferring an aircraft to you, which statement best describes when you may assume control?
• What is the general goal of ATCT Block III operations?
• Which statement best describes the essential elements to include in a taxi clearance for ground movement?
• If you suggest that an IFR aircraft take a delay on the ground, but the pilot insists on taking off VFR, what should be relayed to the approach control facility?
• How do controller actions support safe ground movement after landing?
• What immediate action should be taken when a potential runway incursion is observed?
• What should you do when a taxiing vehicle enters a runway path?
• When issuing a clearance to a taxiing aircraft approaching an active runway, what must the controller ensure?
• How should you handle a conflict when a landing aircraft is on final approach while another is cleared for takeoff on the same runway?
• For extra spacing select the best choice from the answers below, for the local controller.
• How should a controller respond if a pilot does not correctly read back a clearance?
• Missed approaches will climb to __________?
• What are the two SIDS that serve Academy airport?
• Helicopter movement above the surface at slow speed, generally below 20 knots and 25 feet AGL, is called ___________.
• What is the LAHSO phraseology used to instruct a landing aircraft to hold short of an intersecting runway that is being used by a departing aircraft?
• If a pilot does not wish to use a SID, what should you do?
• When issuing NOTAMs, what information is included to guide operations?
• What color are the markings used for ILS hold-short and critical area boundaries?
• Which statement is true about a VFR-On-Top clearance?
• Ground Control shall coordinate with which unit before crossing an active runway?
• At Academy Tower, an emergency with low hydraulic pressure is considered an Alert # _________.
• Controller's are required to provide additional services to the extent possible, contingent upon higher priorities, radar limitations, traffic volume, and which factor?
• When a pilot reports an inflight equipment malfunction, controllers must determine which aspect?
• Which practice helps minimize runway incursions?
• What is an "intersection takeoff," and when might it be used?
• Local control shall not authorize an aircraft to line up and wait at an intersection during which time?
• Taxiway/taxiway intersection holding position markings consist of how many yellow dashed lines extending across the width of the taxiway?
• During a potential safety incident, what is essential when coordinating with emergency services?
• What is the purpose of a readback in ATC communications, and when is it required?
• What is the phraseology used to issue the time a pilot can expect to start engines when gate hold procedures are in effect?
• What factors determine wake turbulence separation in typical tower operations?
• What is the maximum permitted crossing speed for Class C or D surface areas unless a higher minimum speed is specified?
• How should a controller handle a pilot requesting a clarification for a clearance?
• What is the standard phraseology to authorize an aircraft to take off?
• What practices help maintain situational awareness in a crowded tower?
• What type of information from METAR/TAF informs tower operations?
• If an aircraft declares an emergency on the runway, what is the ATCT priority?
• Local Control prioritizes actions according to their significance in the ________.
• Local Control shall ensure that the runway is free of all known vehicles, equipment, and personnel before a ________.
• In the LAHSO example, which runway is cleared to land?
• What action is a pilot expected to take if they do not wish to use a SID issued in an ATC clearance?
• In the LAHSO example, which aircraft type is mentioned?
• What is a primary purpose of an intersection takeoff in airfield management?
• Holding position markings at taxiway intersections consist of which visual element?
• Helicopter ground taxiing uses less fuel than hover-taxiing and __________.
• What are the primary responsibilities of ATCT controllers regarding runway signage and signals?
• If suitable landmarks are not available to determine distances on the same runway, a departing aircraft must not start takeoff roll until the preceding departure has become airborne and crossed the runway end or which action?
• Which phrase indicates the runway designation in the standard takeoff clearance?
• What runway designation is used in the clearance to clear N12345 to perform a touch and go?
• Victor eight is designated below which altitude, as well as all victor airways?
• In the scenario, which aircraft had landed on Runway 28R but had not turned off?
• When issuing a crossing clearance of a runway, what must the controller convey?
• What are the essential elements in a taxi clearance for a ground movement?
• Which area contains ramps and parking areas where aircraft move under their own power and without ATC clearance?
• What is the top altitude of Academy Class D airspace?
• Controller's provide ATC service on a ______________ basis as circumstances permit.
• During arrival operations, ground vehicles are restricted in the ILS critical area when the reported ceiling or visibility falls below which values?
• Which statement about helicopter operations is true?
• What does Academy Class D airspace include?
• What airport markings designate an ILS critical area?
• Which configuration indicates a hold-short location on a taxiway?
• Which weather information is most critical for ATCT operations?
• What is 'standard separation' and how is it determined in a tower environment?
• What is the controller's role in lost communication scenarios with pilots on the field?
• Why is standard altimeter phraseology important in instrument meteorological conditions?
• SVFR operations are conducted in which airspace class?
• Which of the following statements about SVFR altitude is true?
• An air traffic controller's first priority is separation of aircraft and __________.
• FD relays tower visibility to __________.
• What is the difference between a clearance for "Taxi to Runway 09" and "Taxi to Runway 09 via Taxiway Bravo"?
• Traffic advisories are NOT provided to an aircraft under which conditions?
• Approve a pilot's request to cross Class C or D surface areas at a speed that does not exceed ________ knots, unless a higher minimum speed is required.
• When an aircraft is responding to an RA, traffic advisories and safety alerts regarding terrain and obstructions should be provided for_______.
• When should a controller provide priority handling to diverted flights?
• What is the purpose of standard phraseology when giving altimeter settings to pilots?
• Departure information for departing aircraft includes braking action for the runway in use when which condition exists?
• How should you handle a pilot reporting an engine fire on the runway during takeoff?
• Which of the following is not a duty of the CD position?
• Which combination of clearance details indicates a specific routing is required to reach the intended runway?
• Why is it important to maintain separation between arriving and departing aircraft on the same runway?
• Which action describes Ground Control's role in relation to flight plans?
• Positive coordination and control are required as follows: Ground Control (GC) must obtain approval from Local Control (LC) before authorizing an aircraft or vehicle to cross or use any portion of an active runway.
• Issue current touchdown RVR to departing aircraft for the runway in use when the prevailing visibility is ________ or less.
• What should you verify before issuing a takeoff clearance?
• Phraseology to issue a landing clearance to an arriving aircraft reporting a position where he/she should be seen and has NOT been visually observed is
• How does human factors engineering apply to ATCT operations?
• Which elements are included in the example taxi phraseology used to taxi an aircraft to a runway?
• What is the phraseology to clear N12345 (a Cessna 172) to perform a touch and go on Runway 28 Left?
• A PDR for the route filed by the pilot is assigned when a SID is not established for the departure route to be flown or __________.
• What is the role of coordination with ground control and approach control during incidents or abnormal operations?
• What altitude requirements are issued along with a SVFR clearance?
• Preventive airport traffic control service is provided only to aircraft operating in accordance with a(n) ________.
• For helicopters, what is the required distance between takeoff points to allow simultaneous takeoffs?
• Under what condition can ATC clear an aircraft to maintain VFR-on-Top?
• Which of the following markings consist of four yellow lines, two solid and two dashed, extending across the width of the taxiway?
• When in communication with an aircraft in distress, you should transfer responsibility ________.
• What does "cleared to land" authorize an arriving aircraft to do?
• Which statement best describes when readbacks are required?
• When can a controller assume control of an aircraft being transferred to them?
• A taxi clearance to an assigned takeoff runway authorizes crossing which elements along the route?
• When must controller's issue a safety alert?
• How should a controller respond to an aircraft aborting a takeoff (rejected takeoff)?
• Which statement correctly differentiates "Hold Short of" from "Cross" in runway movements?
• Which is the correct phraseology for Local Control to authorize Ground Control to cross an active runway?
• Which statement about taxi clearance phraseology helps avoid confusion?
• During a MARSA procedure, a controller will provide separation between participating military aircraft and which aircraft?
• In a general sense, what is 'Situational awareness' in ATCT operations?
• What does a "hold short of" clearance require a pilot to do?
• In responding to a helicopter request for takeoff from an area off the airport, what is the required phraseology?
• A determination can be made as to whether an aircraft on the ground has an operable receiver, but NO transmitter, by asking the pilot to __________.
• During a TCAS Resolution Advisory (RA), ATC should __________.
• Which elements require a readback in ATC communications?
• Which unit must grant clearance before crossing an active runway?
• Which action is associated with the CD position’s duties?
• What is the primary purpose of Local Control in relation to runway operations?
• The minimum required information to obtain when handling an emergency is the aircraft identification and type, ________, and pilot's desires.
• Request a readback of runway hold short instructions when ________.
• How does coordination with Approach/Departure control support sequencing?
• Which runway does the ILS precision approach serve at Academy?
• If a pilot calls for emergency assistance, what information is required to initiate the response?
• Which Victor airway is defined by the 050 radial from the Tulsa VORTAC?
• What is the correct procedure when you observe a taxiing vehicle entering a runway path?
• Which practice most clearly supports maintaining clear communication and preventing misunderstandings in a busy tower?
• Which criteria are checked before issuing a takeoff clearance?
• Which control position maintains direct communication with the aircraft and ensures separation on runways and in designated airspace?
• Which of the following is the phraseology used to taxi an aircraft to a runway?
• Which statement best describes the CD position’s main responsibility?
• When is braking action information included in departure information?
• Which duty best describes Ground Control's role in maintaining safe operations on the ground?
• Avoid clearances that ________.
• One of the methods employed by Traffic Management personnel to minimize delays is_______________.
• What is the difference between "Line Up and Wait" and "Cleared for Takeoff"?
• What is the optional ending in the helicopter takeoff response phrase?
• Controllers are required to issue safety alerts under what circumstances?
• Which statement correctly describes who must authorize crossing an active runway?
• Who issues a time check to a pilot who has received a void time?
• Which option lists the correct authority to cross a runway?
• Which statement best describes positive coordination for runway crossing?
• How should you convey braking action or runway condition information to pilots to support safe operations?
• Minimum distance separation can be applied between two departing Category III aircraft if distances can be determined by reference to suitable landmarks, provided that the preceding aircraft is
• What is the standard procedure when a pilot reports a loss of communications?
• In the described scenario with Runways 28R and 28L active, what would be the correct phraseology for Baron 6CD to line up and wait on Runway 28R?
• What constitutes an 'emergency situation' on the airfield, and how should it be communicated?
• Is issuing departure clearances the primary function of the CD position?
• How can controllers minimize runway incursions at an airport?
• How should you communicate potential braking action or wet runway conditions to pilots?
• What is the name of the outer marker for the ILS R28R approach?
• A PDR for the route filed by the pilot is assigned when a SID is not established for the departure route to be flown or __________.
• What is the recommended practice for issuing clearances to multiple aircraft at a busy airport?
• What is the purpose of using 'observed runway state' checks before clearing a takeoff?
• What is the recommended practice for issuing clearances to multiple aircraft at a busy airport?
• Control formation flights as ____________.
• What is the minimum information required to start emergency assistance?
• Which factor best supports maintaining appropriate spacing when issuing clearances to multiple aircraft?
• Traffic advisories are issued to all aircraft of which category?
• What is the VHF departure frequency for the AAC1 SID?
• When should safety alerts be issued by controllers?
• Which runways were active in the scenario described for the Baron and Lear?
• How should runway lighting and markings influence ATCT clearance decisions?
• LAHSO simultaneous takeoff and landing operations must occur only in which conditions?
• How does METAR/TAF information influence tower operations?
• Which is an example of the correct phraseology used to request an aircraft to hold short of a runway?
• The position that is in direct communication with the aircraft and ensures separation of aircraft on the runways and in the designated airspace is _________ Control.
• Which precision approach serves Academy Airport?
• During an incident or abnormal operation on the airfield, what is the primary purpose of coordinating with both ground control and approach control?
• What Category was the Lear aircraft (Lear 102KM) in the described scenario?
• What is the general basis for providing ATC service when traffic demands exceed capacity?
• Phraseology to achieve proper spacing includes, but not limited to
• Traffic advisories are not provided if the aircraft is in Class A airspace.
• If an emergency landing will be made with explosive cargo aboard, inform the pilot of the safest or least congested airport areas.
• What is the first action to take when an aircraft reports a NAVAID malfunction?